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Time as before, or after, but never now.
Posted 04-25-2010 at 09:30 AM by TuringEquivalent

I doubt there is something called “now”. We know from special relativity that different observers have different notions of now. For Observer O, and O*, where O* move at +v relative to O. An event E, depicted by O is (x, y, z, t), and O* is (x*, y*, z*, t*). In general, t is not equal to t* for v>0. This is just the consequence of the special theory of relativity that our notion of simultaneity is wrong. So, if we discard the notion of now, what remains of our notion of time? I there is still the notion of before, or after of an event. So:

1. There is no now.
2. There is before for an event.
3. There is after for an event.

My claim that 1 to 3 captures our notion of time .

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“Intellectual masturbation” see above

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Buy a forest. Adopt 8 midget babies every year (mixed race). Be the only non-midget around and raise them to think you're their god.

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I think it would be awesome if you could get Morgan Freeman's voice on a GPS. It would be like he's narrating your travels.

How the fuck can there be a before (thus a past) and an after (thus a future), but not a now (present)?

You're absolutely right; Intellectual masturbation. Link to the forum? I wanna see this shit for real.

http://www.philosophyforum.com/blogs/turingequivalent/934-time-before-after-but-never-now.html

It's a plethora of half-witted squabbling.

http://www.philosophyforum.com/philosophy-forums/existentialism/8546-prove-my-existence.html

PAHAHAHA!

I haven't laughed so hard in so long

^easy answer to the second one: you don't exist, I am going to go on with my life now.